Hi everybody,
I am getting seriously confused trying to understand the output of the
TDDFT "Response" calculations in BAND. For example, let's take the the
output of the silicon example (in examples/band directory). Could
somebody explain to me, what is the definition of the "Chi_jj"
tensor, which is printed in the course of the TDDFT calculation?
This cannot be the electric susceptibility tensor, as it does not
match the dielectric function, printed later in the calculation:
eps(omega) = 1 + 4 pi chi(omega)
eps(0.042) = 16.1 (which seems about right for silicon)
chi_jj(0.042) = -9.99
The only other quantity denoted by the chi_jj symbol, which I can see
in Fred Koostra's thesis is the current-current response kernel -
however, this is not a material property. Looking at the code in
"caldec.d", it appears that the relationship between eps and chi_jj
is given by:
4 pi chi_jj(omega) - chi_jj(0)
eps(omega) = 1 + ----- -------------------------
V omega**2
Comparing to eq. (4.62) in Fred's thesis, I assume that the "chi_jj"
value printed in the code is, in fact, the integral of the paramagnetic
current density over the Wigner-Seitz cell. Is this interpretation
correct?
The second puzzle is that for 1D linear chains, the program will
instead calculate (in calpol.d) and print the X,X component of the
quantity:
chi_jj(omega) - chi_jj(0)
alpha(omega) = - ---------------------------
omega**2
> From eqs. 9.21-9.22 of the thesis, this appears to be the longitudinal
polarizability of a single unit cell, in Bohr**3. Is this interpretation
correct? Why other components of the electric susceptibility tensor are
discarded in this case?
Serguei
--- Dr. Serguei Patchkovskii Tel: +1-(613)-990-0945 Fax: +1-(613)-947-2838 E-mail: Serguei.Patchkovskii_at_nrc.ca Coordinator of Modelling Software Theory and Computation Group Steacie Institute for Molecular Sciences National Research Council Canada Room 2011, 100 Sussex Drive Ottawa, Ontario K1A 0R6 CanadaReceived on 2003-04-09 14:25:28
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